Mr. Alphin said since the government figure [$34 billion] is less than the $45 billion provided to Bank of America, the bank will now start looking at ways of repaying the $11 billion difference over time to the government.
Wednesday, May 6, 2009
All lies and jest
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7 comments:
one thing i am unclear about:
why are the prefs treated differently than common stock for tangible common equity purposes?
the TARP prefs are tier 1 capital so why do they not get the same treatment as equity for solvency calculations?
Therefore, does this mean that under a worst case scenario whereby losses signficantly exceed earning power (pre-prov pre-tax profits) and begin to deplete TCE that BAC would have to raise or convert 34B of TARP funds. So, the headline suggests BAC would have to raise 34B today...which is not the case?
In answer to babar ganesh's question...
THEY CHANGED THE RULES.
I was reading bank accounts for years before the TCE ratio became fashionable.
The GOVERNMENT CHANGED THE RULES. Do not forget it.
And to Anon's question - yes - if the losses exceed the pre-provision earnings power the company would probably need to free up some capital.
There are easy things - selling Franklin, the Chinese bank, shrinking the securities book and selling some assets to the Geithner funds.
There is hard stuff too.
J
If BAC runs higher they can always convert some of their private preferred at a premium. For example, if BAC can run to $15 they could convert some preferred at a price of $20 and raise $20 billion of equity that way for a cost of dilution of 1 billion shares.
If normalized earnings are $30 billion a year you are still looking at nearly $4 per share earnings a few years out.
Let's also remember that their stakes in Blackrock, CCB, Banco Itau, and Banco Santander are worth around $40 billion.
yes, they changed the rules, but what is their rationale or what can you say their implied rationale is given the rule change?
babar - no idea,
seriously I think learning as you go along...
Imho you are all using 10yr old methods of analysis (in a bull mkt assets inflation environment)......how is 3-4% TCE going to be enough of a cushion in an asset deflation environement where assets are declining by 10-70% and many more shoes will be dropping. In addition, banks are too riskaverse to take advantage of interest rate margin and investment banking is dead (for now)....by the way converting pfrds to common equity does not add more cushion!
what am i missing?
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